Presuming that we hold true the
claims of The Philosopher, Aristotle, is it possible that justice (in his
definition) does not exist at all? Aristotle proposes that justice is a
relative state in which every member of a society receives the proportion of “wealth”
or “value” that he deserves. This is to say that those who are more
contributive to the society deserve more than those who are not, or who take
away from it, correct? Expanding on this idea, then, Aristotle assumes what I
refer to as a unified conscience. By this I mean that Aristotle’s definition of
justice can only stand true if every member of the society has the same morals
and values for everything – even down to currency. Allow me to be more
specific.
Let’s
take the example used in class with the shoes and the crop of corn. Imagine
yourself as a master shoemaker. You regularly make your product for common
sales, but spend your spare time throughout the year creating a masterpiece. To
you, your year’s worth of hard work might seem deserving of greater reward than
a typical pair of shoes, but to other members of your society all you have made
is another pair of shoes, not worthy of the farmer’s annual crop. We now reach
the breaking point of Aristotle’s theory of justice. If justice is a relative
accounting of appropriately proportioned “wealth”, who decides what the value
of any object is?
You may
believe that you deserve more than many wealthier people in the world. I dare
to say everyone has this belief at some point in time. Without it, there would
be no one striving for greater successfulness. So, if we all have different
opinions of what someone relatively deserves, how can we come to a completely
just resolution? A more black and white example is this: a man intentionally kills
his family because they turn their backs on him as a father and husband. Does
he deserve to lose all of his rights of birth and die, or does he deserve to
live? This question can never be answered unanimously because there are varying
ideas of relativity.
Therefore,
what Aristotle proposes (justice based on relativity) is not justice at all. It
is but elected order. The shoemaker will never see justice, for the product he
has put his year into will not receive the same value as the farmer’s crop. We
need food to survive on a day to day basis, but walking around barefoot could
lead to cuts, infections, and ultimately death. So is Aristotle proposing that
justice is actually accepting whatever the majority of a society considers to
be just and ignoring the minority who are burdened with injustice? This implies
that justice can only exist when there is an unjust component to it. Is that
true justice?
I think Aristotle has created an idea of justice that would in practice, make an increasingly efficient society. That is, the most capable and productive members are rewarded most and therefore the average "ability" of the population would increase over time. It does imply that the less capable members of society will not fare as well. The standard by which different people's professions, talents, skills, etc are measured is their usefulness to the rest of the population. I think this is essentially true of our society as, someone can only earn money for a service or good if there is a demand from a second individual.
ReplyDeleteI think Aristotle's ideal society would be completely suited to provide everyone's needs without wasting, or needing more. I believe justice is the means by which he would hope to achieve this society, a conscious decision to work toward maximizing a society's ability.
My question for Aristotle then, is what is should the purpose of a society be? Is there some collective ambition that should drive all of the members of a society? I think that he might say that the purpose of a society should be only to continue to better itself, becoming more efficient, a kind of "the journey is the goal" type mentality. If that is the case, I agree that Aristotle's justice is a potentially arbitrary system, where the value placed on certain things can be somewhat random.